Investment Management Legal and Regulatory Update - January 2019


LATEST DEVELOPMENTS

SEC Announces 2019 Examination Priorities

The SEC’s Office of Compliance Inspections and Examinations (OCIE) released its 2019 examination priorities on December 20, 2018. In its release, OCIE noted that it completed over 3,150 examinations in 2018, which reflected a 10% increase from the prior fiscal year.

OCIE noted its 2019 priorities have changed to address new risks that have emerged, as well as existing risks that have become heightened or been mitigated. The 2019 priorities are grouped into the following six categories:

  1. Matters of importance to retail investors, including seniors and those saving for retirement;
  2. Compliance and risk in registrants responsible for critical market infrastructure;
  3. Select areas and programs of FINRA and MSRB;
  4. Digital assets, including cryptocurrencies, coins and tokens;
  5. Cybersecurity; and
  6. Anti-money laundering (AML).

Several of these categories are described in more detail below. OCIE noted that while these priorities drive many of OCIE’s examinations, the scope of any examination is determined through a risk-based approach that includes analysis of the registrant’s operations, products offered and other factors.

Retail Investors, Including Seniors and Those Saving for Retirement

OCIE continues its focus on protecting retail investors, particularly seniors and those saving for retirement, and will focus on the following areas:

Digital Assets

In light of the rapid growth in the digital asset market and related risks, OCIE will focus on monitoring the offer, sale, trading and management of digital assets. OCIE will also examine products that are securities for regulatory compliance purposes. In particular, OCIE will actively work to identify market participants offering, selling, trading and managing these products or considering or actively seeking to offer such products. OCIE will also conduct examinations focused on portfolio management of digital assets, trading, safety to client funds and assets, pricing of client portfolios, compliance and internal controls for firms actively engaged in the digital asset market.

Cybersecurity

OCIE believes cybersecurity protection is critical to the operation of the financial markets and will continue to focus examinations on proper configuration of network storage devices, policies and procedures regarding retail trading information security, as well as general information security governance. OCIE will pay particular attention to the cybersecurity practices of investment advisers with multiple branch offices, including those that were recently merged with other advisers, and other areas, such as governance and risk assessment, access rights and controls, data loss prevention, vendor management, training, and incident response.

AML Programs

OCIE will focus on broker-dealer AML programs to ensure such programs include, among other things, policies and procedures reasonably designed to identify customers, monitor suspicious activity, perform customer due diligence, and, if applicable, file suspicious activity reports with FinCEN.

The SEC’s press release relating to the OCIE’s 2019 examination priorities noted that these published priorities are not exhaustive and will not be the only issues OCIE addresses in its examinations.

Sources: SEC Office of Compliance Inspections and Examinations Announces 2019 Examination Priorities (Dec. 20, 2018), available here; 2019 Examination Priorities, Office of Compliance Inspections and Examinations (Dec. 20, 2018), available here.

OCIE Issues Risk Alert Relating to Advisers’ Use of Electronic Messaging

On December 17, 2018, OCIE issued a risk alert regarding observations from its limited-scope investment adviser examination initiative relating to various forms of electronic messaging used by advisers and their personnel, risks related to such use, as well as the challenges of complying with certain provisions under the Advisers Act, including Rule 204-2 (the Books and Records Rule) and Rule 206(4)-7 (the Compliance Rule).

OCIE’s examinations focused on the following types of electronic messaging: text/SMS messaging, instant messaging, personal email and personal or private messaging. OCIE also focused on electronic communications that were conducted on an adviser’s systems or third-party applications (apps) or platforms or sent from an adviser’s computers, mobile devices issued by advisory firms or personal computers or other mobile devices used by the adviser’s personnel for the adviser’s business.

OCIE’s staff made the following observations, which may assist advisers in complying with their obligations under the Books and Records Rule and the Compliance Rule.

Policies and Procedures

Employee Training and Attestations

Supervisory Review

Control over Devices

OCIE’s risk alert encourages advisers to review their risks, practices and policies and procedures relating to electronic communications and consider improvements to their compliance programs to ensure compliance with any applicable regulatory requirements. Some industry commentators are wary of OCIE’s recommendations, noting that certain recommendations may be impractical in the digital age and leave some unanswered questions.

Sources: OCIE National Exam Program Risk Alert-Observations from Investment Adviser Examinations Relating to Electronic Messaging (Dec. 17, 2018), available here; Jill Gregorie, SEC Electronic Comms Guidance Stuck in the Stone Age: Consultants, IGNITES (Dec. 19, 2018).

OCIE Issues Risk Alert Relating to Risk-Based Examination Initiatives Focused on Registered Investment Complexes

On November 8, 2018, and as part of OCIE’s continued focus on retail investors, OCIE indicated its examinations will focus on funds, advisers and board oversight of the topics discussed below. The risk alert indicated that OCIE would evaluate an adviser’s policies and procedures to ensure that they are designed to address risks and conflicts related to the topics below and that it would also focus on board oversight of a fund’s compliance program with respect to those matters. OCIE will also assess disclosures made to investors, as well as disclosures made to fund boards by relating to the topics below.

OCIE provided that its examinations will specifically focus on the following areas:

The risk alert signals OCIE’s interest in board process and deliberations, as well as board oversight. Fund boards can use the risk alert as a way to assess whether any of the six topics listed above were presented to the board or included in board materials, if such topics were applicable.

Source: OCIE National Exam Program Risk Alert—Risk-Based Examination Initiatives Focuses on Registered Investment Companies (Nov. 8, 2018), available here; Greg Saitz, SEC Starts Funds Sweep with Questions About Their Boards, BOARD IQ (Nov. 20, 2018).

Update on Proposed Regulation Best-Interest Rule 

On December 6, 2018, Chairman Clayton stated that the proposed Regulation Best Interest Rule, which would subject broker-dealers to a best interest standard when making recommendations to retail customers, would be a “key priority” for the SEC in 2019. Chairman Clayton also testified before the U.S. Senate Committee on Banking, Housing and Urban Affairs on December 11, 2018, and remarked upon the proposed Regulation Best Interest Rule. Senator Elizabeth Warren questioned the disclosure-based approach of the rule, stating that several studies, including those conducted by the SEC, have shown that disclosure-based regulations are unworkable because retail clients are still unfamiliar with the differences between investment advisers and broker-dealers and their respective responsibilities.

As discussed in our October Update, states are moving forward by passing or considering whether to pass similar fiduciary rule legislation. For example, New York passed a rule that requires advisers and broker-dealers to consider their customers’ interests when recommending annuities and life insurance products, which has a compliance date of August 1, 2019. However, two lawsuits have been filed against the New York Department of Financial Services alleging that its best interest regulation is an example of regulatory overreach. Nevada has also adopted a best interest-like regulation, although the rules for implementing this legislation have yet to be released by state regulators. Finally, other states, such as California, Connecticut, Maryland and New Jersey, have or are considering similar legislation or rules.

Source: Speech, SEC Rulemaking Over the Past Year, the Road Ahead and Challenges Posed by Brexit, LIBOR Transition and Cybersecurity Risks, Jay Clayton (Dec. 6, 2018), available here; Joe Morris, Clayton Addresses Proxy Advisers, Fiduciary Standard, Buy-Backs, Brexit with Senate, Federal Securities Law Reporter, Issue No. 2857 (Dec. 20, 2018); Beagan Wilcox, Lawsuits Challenge N.Y. Best Interest Reg, IGNITES (Nov. 30, 2018).

OCIE Issues Risk Alert Regarding Compliance Issues Related to the Cash Solicitation Rule

On October 31, 2018, OCIE issued a risk alert with information concerning the most common deficiencies the staff has cited relating to Rule 206(4)-3 of the Advisers Act (the Cash Solicitation Rule). The risk alert reflects issues identified during a review of deficiency letters from investment adviser examinations completed during the past three years and particularly focuses on observations relating to an adviser’s use of third-party solicitors (i.e., a solicitor who is not a partner, officer, director or employee of the adviser or of an entity that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with, the adviser). 

Note that investment advisers are subject to narrower requirements under the Cash Solicitation Rule when the solicitor is a partner, officer, director or employee of the adviser or of an entity that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with, the adviser. This article summarizes certain of the requirements of the Cash Solicitation Rule identified in the risk alert. 

The Cash Solicitation Rule provides that investment advisers registered (or required to be registered) under the Advisers Act cannot pay a cash fee to any person who solicits clients unless the adviser meets several conditions. Such conditions include the following:

OCIE described the most frequent deficiencies it found among advisers involving the Cash Solicitation Rule. These deficiencies include:

In light of the deficiencies noted, advisers should review and modify as necessary their compliance policies and procedures, as well as relevant documentation, to help ensure compliance with the specifics of the Cash Solicitation Rule.

Source: OCIE National Exam Program Risk Alert—Investment Adviser Compliance Issues Related to the Cash Solicitation Rule (Oct. 31, 2018),available here.

Updates to Investment Company Modernization FAQs

The SEC’s Division of Investment Management updated its frequently asked questions relating to the reporting modernization reforms for investment companies on November 14, 2018. The new guidance addresses, among other items, questions relating to the following:

Source: Investment Company Reporting Modernization Frequently Asked Questions (Nov. 14, 2018), available here.

SEC Releases Rule Proposal for Fund of Funds Arrangements

The SEC has recently proposed a new rule that would permit registered investment companies to acquire securities of other registered investment companies in excess of the limits set forth in the 1940 Act without the need for obtaining an individual exemptive order from the SEC.  The SEC stated that the proposed rule reflects decades of the Commission’s experience with “fund of funds” arrangements, noting that funds increasingly invest in other funds to achieve asset allocation, diversification or other investment objectives. The SEC staff estimates that almost 50% of all registered funds hold investments in other funds, most often U.S. equity, international equity and fixed income asset classes. The SEC believes that the proposed rule, Rule 12d1-4, would streamline and enhance the regulatory framework applicable to these fund of funds arrangements.

The 1940 Act imposes limits on the ability of a fund to make significant investments in another fund. Section 12(d)(1)(A) of the 1940 Act prohibits a registered fund from acquiring more than 3% of another fund’s outstanding voting securities; investing more than 5% of its total assets in any one fund; or investing more than 10% of its total assets in funds generally.

The new rule would permit a registered investment company to acquire shares of another fund in excess of these limits, subject to conditions that are designed to address historical abuses associated with fund of funds arrangements:

Private funds and other unregistered investment companies would not be eligible to rely on the new rule.

The SEC also proposed to amend Rule 12d1-1 to allow funds that invest in funds in the same group of investment companies to invest in unaffiliated money market funds.

The SEC has also proposed reporting requirements for funds that rely on the new rule by proposed amendments to Form N-CEN.

Because the proposed rule would provide a comprehensive exemption for fund of funds arrangements, the SEC has proposed to rescind:

Funds relying on existing exemptive orders would have a period of one year after the effective date of the rule before rescission in order to conform their operations with the requirements of the proposed rule and rule amendments. 

Sources: SEC Proposes Rule Changes for Fund of Funds Arrangements, SEC Press Release No. 2018-295 (Dec. 19, 2018), available here; Proposed Rule, Funds of Funds Arrangements, Release No. 33-10590 (Dec. 19, 2018), available here; Jill Gregory, SEC Paves Simpler Path for Fund-of-Funds Products, IGNITES (Dec. 20, 2018); Jill Gregorie, SEC Draft Fund-of-Fund Rule Favors ETFs, Throws Wrench in Liquidity Program, IGNITES (Jan. 8, 2019).

SEC Issues No-Action Letter Granting Closed-End Fund Relief Under Rule 486(b)

The SEC’s Division of Investment Management issued a no-action letter on November 5, 2018 granting relief to a registered closed-end fund complex that allows it to file immediately effective registration statements under Rule 486(b) of the Securities Act.

Rule 486(b) generally provides that each post-effective amendment to a shelf registration statement filed by interval funds (i.e., closed-end funds that make periodic repurchase offers under Rule 23c-3 of the 1940 Act) will become immediately effective upon filing with the SEC, provided that certain conditions are satisfied. The conditions require, among other items, that the post-effective amendment is filed by the interval fund for no purpose other than making non-material changes or providing updated financial statements. Rule 486(b) also allows an interval fund to make certain representations regarding the purpose of such filing.

Absent no-action relief, Section 8(c) of the Securities Act requires that each post-effective amendment to a shelf registration statement of a closed-end fund, other than an interval fund, must be reviewed and declared effective by the SEC. In this context, the closed-end fund complex sought no-action relief in order to avoid having its registration statement reviewed and commented on by the SEC. The staff granted the complex relief because it represented that the updates to its registration statement would be in compliance with the conditions set forth under Rule 486(b) even though it was not an interval fund. The no-action relief granted by the SEC is similar to relief granted to other closed-end fund complexes pursuant to prior no-action letters.

Sources: Response of the Chief Counsel’s Office, Division of Investment Management (Oct. 29, 2018), available here; Request for No-Action Relief: Eaton Vance Tax-Managed Buy-Write Opportunities Fund, Eaton Vance Tax-Managed Buy-Write Income Fund, Eaton Vance Tax-Managed Global Buy-Write Opportunities Fund and Eaton Vance Tax-Advantaged Global Dividend Opportunities Fund (Oct. 29, 2018), available here; Response of the Chief Counsel’s Office, Division of Investment Management (Oct. 4, 2018), available here; Request for No-Action Relief: DNP Select Income Fund Inc. (Oct. 4, 2018), available here; Response of the Chief Counsel’s Office, Division of Investment Management (Sept. 13, 2018), available here; Request for No-Action Relief: PIMCO Corporate & Income Opportunity Fund and PIMCO Income Opportunity Fund (Sept. 13, 2018), available here; Response of the Chief Counsel’s Office, Division of Investment Management (Feb. 14, 2018), available here; Request for No-Action Relief: Eagle Point Credit Company Inc. (Feb. 14, 2018), available here.

LITIGATION AND SEC ENFORCEMENT ACTIONS

Partial Summary Judgment Granted in Excessive Fee Suit

On October 25, 2018, the U.S. District Court for the Central District of California issued a tentative ruling granting in part and denying in part defendant Metropolitan West Asset Management, LLC’s (MetWest) motion for summary judgment in an excessive fee suit brought under Section 36(b) of the 1940 Act by a shareholder of the Metropolitan West Total Return Bond Fund. The plaintiff alleged that MetWest charged excessive advisory fees to the Fund in light of the firm providing substantially similar services for a lower fee as a sub-adviser to unaffiliated funds. After considering the Gartenberg factors, the Court granted the defendant’s motion for summary judgment as to two of the factors, nature and quality of services and fall-out benefits, noting that the plaintiff did not submit a meaningful argument that either factor leaned in his favor. The Court denied summary judgment as to the other factors.

Regarding the care and conscientiousness of the Fund board, the Court stated that, although the board’s decision to approve the advisory fee is entitled to considerable weight, there remains a triable issue of fact as to the approval process because the board did not receive or consider certain materials (the identity of the specific materials was redacted in the tentative ruling). As a result, the Court concluded that deference to the board’s decision, and therefore summary judgment as to this factor, was unwarranted. As to comparative fee structures, the Court concluded that MetWest’s reliance on peer group data to show reasonableness of the advisory fee was not sufficient to warrant summary judgment because a probative alternative “that could win the day” could be offered by comparing the fees charged by MetWest as a sub-adviser to unaffiliated funds to the advisory fee MetWest charged the Fund. The Court also refused to grant summary judgment as to economies of scale and profitability.

Source: Kennis v. Metropolitan West Asset Management, LLC, Case No. 2:15-cv-08162-GW-FFM (C.D. Cal. Oct. 25, 2018).

Final Rule Compliance Date(s)
Investment Company Reporting Modernization: New Form N-CEN June 1, 2018 for all funds (first filing date is 75 days from the end of a fund’s fiscal year after June 1, 2018)
Liquidity Risk Management Programs (Rule 22e-4)

Requirements of Liquidity Risk Management Program Not Subject to Extension:

  • Adoption and implementation of Liquidity Risk Management Program (including risk assessment)
  • Board designation of program administrator
  • 15% illiquid investment limit
  • Establishment of policies and procedures for funds that engage in redemptions in-kind
  • Related recordkeeping requirements

Fund complexes with $1 billion or more in net assets: December 1, 2018

Fund complexes with less than $1 billion in net assets:
June 1, 2019

Requirements of Liquidity Risk Management Program Subject to Extension:

  • Portfolio classification (bucketing)
  • Highly Liquid Investment Minimum (HLIM)
  • Board oversight
  • Related recordkeeping requirements

Fund complexes with $1 billion or more in net assets:
June 1, 2019

Fund complexes with less than $1 billion in net assets:
December 1, 2019

Form N-LIQUID (notice to SEC when a fund’s level of illiquid investments exceeds 15% of its net assets or when its highly liquid investments fall below minimum)

Parts A, B and C
Fund complexes with $1 billion or more in net assets:
December 1, 2018

Fund complexes with less than $1 billion in net assets:
June 1, 2019

Part D
Fund complexes with $1 billion or more in net assets:
June 1, 2019

Fund complexes with less than $1 billion in net assets:
December 1, 2019

Amendments to Form N-CEN associated with liquidity rule

Fund complexes with $1 billion or more in net assets:
first filing date is no later than 75 days following the first fiscal year ending after December 1, 2018, based on fiscal year end data

Fund complexes with less than $1 billion in net assets:
first filing date is no later than 75 days following the first fiscal year ending after June 1, 2019, based on fiscal year end data

Amendments to the certification requirements of Form N-CSR (each certifying officer must state that such officer has disclosed in the report any change in internal control over financial reporting that occurred during the most recent fiscal half-year, rather than most recent fiscal quarter)

Fund complexes with $1 billion or more in net assets:
March 1, 2019

Fund complexes with less than $1 billion in net assets:
March 1, 2020

Investment Company Reporting Modernization: New Form N-PORT

Fund complexes with $1 billion or more in net assets:
first filing date is April 30, 2019, based on March 31, 2019 data

Note that larger fund complexes are required to maintain in their records the information that is required to be included in Form N-PORT beginning no later than July 30, 2018, based on June 30, 2018 data, in lieu of submitting the information via EDGAR.

Fund complexes with less than $1 billion in net assets:
first filing date is April 30, 2020, based on March 31, 2020 data

Rescission of Form N-Q (funds are required to continue filing Form N-Qs until they begin filing Form N-PORTs)

Fund complexes with $1 billion or more in net assets:
May 1, 2019 (a fund’s last Form N-Q reporting period will be the fiscal quarter ending December 31, 2018, January 31, 2019 or February 28, 2019, as applicable)

Fund complexes with less than $1 billion in net assets:
May 1, 2020 (a fund’s last Form N-Q reporting period will be the fiscal quarter ending December 31, 2019, January 31, 2020 or February 28, 2020, as applicable)

Form N-1A (narrative disclosure regarding operation of a fund’s liquidity risk management program in new subsection of the applicable shareholder report)

Fund complexes with $1 billion or more in net assets:
December 1, 2019

Fund complexes with less than $1 billion in net assets:
June 1, 2020

Amendments to Form N-PORT associated with liquidity rule

Fund complexes with $1 billion or more in net assets:
first filing date is July 30, 2019, based on June 30, 2019 data

Note that larger fund complexes are required to maintain in their records the information that is required to be included in Form N-PORT associated with the liquidity rule beginning no later than January 31, 2019, based on December 31, 2018 data, in lieu of submitting the information via EDGAR.

Fund complexes with less than $1 billion in net assets:
first filing date is April 30, 2020, based on March 31, 2020 data (this is the same date as the Form N-PORT compliance date for fund complexes with $1 billion or less in net assets)

Optional Internet Availability of Fund Shareholder Reports (Rule 30e-3)

Funds electing to distribute shareholder reports via electronic delivery at the earliest date possible (January 1, 2021) must begin including prominent disclosures on each applicable document (summary prospectus, statutory prospectus and annual and semi-annual shareholder reports) starting January 1, 2019.


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National Law Review, Volume IX, Number 24